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Ifill begins her response to what was presented as vastleft's question with the words, "I am not sure what you mean by ' Beltway reporting.' " The original question was entirely clear about what was meant -- not that the neutered version presented in Ifill's Q&A could have left much doubt unless you desperately wanted some kind of a hook to hang an opaque, supercilious answer on -- so I would really like to know how the original question was watered down to the version that Ifill answered so dismissively, and whether similar changes were made to the other questions presented. Thanks.